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  • 03-12-2015
  • Mathematics
Answered

is the lcm of a pair of numbers ever equal to one of the numbers? explain with an example

Verified Answer :

marisofi16 marisofi16
  • 12-12-2015

Yes, it could be equal, but it doesn't occur that often.  For example, the LCM of 2 and 1 is 2.  So could happen but you don't see it that a often.  Only when you want to find the LCM of another number and 1.

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