Suppose that $\operatorname{GCD}(a, b) = \operatorname{GCD}(b, c) = 2$. Does that always imply that $\operatorname{GCD}(a, b, c) = 2$? Justify your answer.
Select the correct choice below.
AYes, the implication is true. The hypothesis implies that 2 is a common multiple of $a, b$, and $c$. If a number greater than 2 is a multiple of $a, b$, and $c$, then in particular that number would have to be a multiple of $a$ and $b$, which is impossible because $\operatorname{GCD}(a, b) = 2$.
BYes, the implication is true. The hypothesis implies that 2 is a common divisor of $a, b$, and $c$. If a number greater than 2 divided $a, b$, and $c$, then in particular that number would have to divide $a$ and $b$, which is impossible because $\operatorname{GCD}(a, b) = 2$.
CNo, the implication is not true. The hypothesis implies that 2 is a common multiple of $a, b$, and $c$. If a number greater than 2 is a multiple of $a, b$, and $c$, then in particular that number would have to be a multiple of $a$ and $b$, which is possible because $\operatorname{GCD}(a, b) = 2$.
DNo, the implication is not true. The hypothesis implies that 2 is a common divisor of $a, b$, and $c$. If a number greater than 2 divided $a, b$, and $c$, then in particular that number would have to divide $a$ and $b$, which is possible because $\operatorname{GCD}(a, b) = 2$.
Select the correct choice below.
AYes, the implication is true. The hypothesis implies that 2 is a common multiple of $a, b$, and $c$. If a number greater than 2 is a multiple of $a, b$, and $c$, then in particular that number would have to be a multiple of $a$ and $b$, which is impossible because $\operatorname{GCD}(a, b) = 2$.
BYes, the implication is true. The hypothesis implies that 2 is a common divisor of $a, b$, and $c$. If a number greater than 2 divided $a, b$, and $c$, then in particular that number would have to divide $a$ and $b$, which is impossible because $\operatorname{GCD}(a, b) = 2$.
CNo, the implication is not true. The hypothesis implies that 2 is a common multiple of $a, b$, and $c$. If a number greater than 2 is a multiple of $a, b$, and $c$, then in particular that number would have to be a multiple of $a$ and $b$, which is possible because $\operatorname{GCD}(a, b) = 2$.
DNo, the implication is not true. The hypothesis implies that 2 is a common divisor of $a, b$, and $c$. If a number greater than 2 divided $a, b$, and $c$, then in particular that number would have to divide $a$ and $b$, which is possible because $\operatorname{GCD}(a, b) = 2$.