Verified Answer :

8 is the answer because:

(½)16=16/2 which = 8

Okay so \(1 \frac{1}{2}*16\).

First, we make 16 a fraction:\(16=\boxed{\boxed{ \frac{16}{1}}}\)

Then, we make \(1 \frac{1}{2}\) a improper fraction: \(1 \frac{1}{2}= \frac{1*2+1}{2}=\boxed{\boxed{ \frac{3}{2}}}\)

Now, we multiply \(\frac{3}{2}\) by \(\frac{16}{1}\): \(\frac{3}{2}* \frac{16}{1}= \frac{48}{2}\)

Finally, we simplify \(\frac{48}{2}\): \(\frac{48:2}{2:2}= \frac{24}{1}=\boxed{\boxed{24}}}\).

Your answer is \(\boxed{\boxed{24}}}}\).

Hoped I helped. :)