we know that
\(1\frac{3}{4}\) of \(150\frac{1}{2}\) is equal to
\((1\frac{3}{4})*(150\frac{1}{2})\)
Step \(1\)
Convert mixed fractions into improper fractions
we know that
\(1\frac{3}{4}=\frac{(1*4+3)}{4} =\frac{7}{4}\)
\(150\frac{1}{2}=\frac{(150*2+1)}{2} =\frac{301}{2}\)
Step \(2\)
Multiply both improper fractions
\(\frac{7}{4}*\frac{301}{2}=\frac{2,107}{8}=263.375\)
Convert to mixed fraction
\(263.375=263\frac{3}{8}\)
therefore
the answer is
\(263\frac{3}{8}\)
