Answer:
Yes
Step-by-step explanation:
We have to change 16% to a fraction:
\(=16/100=4/25\)
We can multiply 4/25 by 40:
\(=(4/25)\cdot{40}=160/25=32/5\)
We can do the same for 40% of 16:
\(=40/100=2/5\)
We can multiply 2/5 by 16:
\(=(2/5)\cdot{16}=32/5\)
Therefore 16% of 40 is equal to 40% of 16
