Because X and Y are independent, the probability that both \(X=x\) and \(Y=y\) is equal to the product of the individual probabilities, i.e.
\(\mathbb P(X=x\,\land\,Y=y)=\mathbb P(X=x)\mathbb P(Y=y)\)
Without knowing the individual probabilities, the question is impossible to answer. But in case you have more information than you've given, you should be all set.
