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ash11w
ash11w ash11w
  • 31-01-2017
  • Mathematics
Answered

Prove by only manipulating one sin(^4)x-cos (^4)x=2sin (^2)x-1

Verified Answer :

LammettHash
LammettHash LammettHash
  • 01-02-2017

Factor a difference of squares:

\(\sin^4x-\cos^4x=(\sin^2x-\cos^2x)(\sin^2x+\cos^2x)\)

This reduces to

\(\sin^2x-\cos^2x\)

due to the Pythagorean identity. By the same identity, you have

\(\sin^2x-\cos^2x=\sin^2x-(1-\sin^2x)=2\sin^2x-1\)

and you're done.

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