Answer:
The expression \(-(\frac{1y}{2}+\frac{1}{4} )\) is equivalent to the expression \(\frac{-1}{4}+\frac{-1y}{2}\) .
Option (A) is correct .
Step-by-step explanation:
As given the expression in the question be as follow .
\(= -(\frac{1y}{2}+\frac{1}{4} )\)
it is also written as
\(= -\frac{1y}{2}-\frac{1}{4}\)
Now take
\(= \frac{-1}{4}(1+2y)\)
Simplify the expression
\(= \frac{-1}{4}+2y\times \frac{-1}{4}\)
\(= \frac{-1}{4}+\frac{-2y}{4}\)
\(= \frac{-1}{4}+\frac{-1y}{2}\)
Therefore the expression \(-(\frac{1y}{2}+\frac{1}{4} )\) is equivalent to the expression \(\frac{-1}{4}+\frac{-1y}{2}\) .
Option (A) is correct .
