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maya1998 maya1998
  • 28-06-2016
  • Mathematics
Answered

why does ln1 equal 0?

Verified Answer :

toporc
toporc toporc
  • 29-06-2016

Logarithms are powers of the base of the logs. If we consider logs to base 10, we find:\(log_{10} 1=0\)
This is because
\(10^{0}=1\)
Similarly for natural logs, where the base is the exponential number e, we have
\(e^{0}=1\)
This ensures that we have no problems with expressions such as the following:
\(ln\ (\frac{60}{1})=ln\ 60-ln\ 1=ln\ 60-0=ln\ 60\)

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