Verified Answer :

penfila11Pen

\(\frac{80}{100}\) 
the least common multiple of both is 20
\(\frac{80/20}{100/20}\)

\(\frac{4}{5}\)
No they are not equivalent.

AL2006

You can tell right away that it's not, just by looking at them,
without doing any arithmetic.

-- 6/5 is more than ' 1 ', because the top is more than the bottom.

-- 80/100 is less than ' 1 ', because the top is less than the bottom.

So they can't be equivalent.

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